Would be interested in your views as I think there are some problems with his arguments. For example, he states:
The next issue is about the meaning of “freedom to leave”. I do not agree that this should mean merely the ability to walk off in a certain direction, which is what most people have interpreted Lady Hale to mean. However, in Re D (A Child) [2017] EWCA Civ 1695 at [22] Sir James Munby P stated that he considered that Lady Hale was using it to mean “leaving in the sense of removing himself permanently in order to live where and with whom he chooses” and not merely “leaving for the purpose of some trip or outing.” If this is adopted, then that too will represent a major inroad into the present very wide reach of the test.
Might there be a few people who hold that view of ‘free to leave’, probably, but not the vast majority. I also think his ‘sleight of hand’ here is what he is really saying is a person who actually indicates a desire to ‘leave in the sense of removing themselves permanently in order to live where and with whom they choose’. Otherwise this would not, as he suggests, “represent a major inroad into the present very wide reach of the test”.
A personal analogy, by the point my grandmothers Alzheimer’s had got to a nature agree, along with underlying health complications, that she now needed to be cared for in a nursing home, she would have been unable to physically try to leave or either indicate a desire to leave (to be fair everyone of my grandparents had their final years in similar situations) - she lacked the capacity to consent to her confinement but she was compliant. The whole family did believe this was now in her best interests and that all other less restrictive options had been trialled, and failed. But, we all knew in our hearts that she would not want to die in that setting, none of my grandparents would have wanted to die in that type of setting, but it was now the only option. This was imposed on her, and my other grandparents, for the right reasons, however, i would suggest that after reading the ‘Mostyn Objection’ his analysis would lead you to conclude that she is not deprived of her liberty, and that none of them required any form of Safeguard. Without these safeguards we would have struggled to have got the person centred support my grandparents were entitled to from both the provider, LA and ICB.
The argument also ignores the affect of institutionalisation on an individual. When, often for all the right reasons, care/residence arrangements have always been always imposed on individual, for some, even before they reach the age of 18. The person is subject to daily controls, monitoring and restrictions, although light-touch (NB: I am not focussing on people subject to significant physical, chemical or mechanical restraint or significant 1-1 or more support - that is straight forward) and whilst afforded many opportunities to access the community in truth the person is and never will be afforded the chance to “leave in the sense of removing themselves permanently in order to live where and with whom they choose”. As someone who worked in supported living type settings, before there were the safeguards of Cheshire West, I can assure Sir Mostyn that it will lead to **“**an erosion of the rights of the mentally impaired”. Can the safeguards be made less bureaucratic yes, is this the right way to do it, no (in my opinion).
I do agree with his argument though when he explores this argument in settings that are not institutions, probably because i think the most valid argument for changing how we look at DoL is the ‘relative normality’ argument which would exclude the persons own and family home settings.